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Old 16.10.2004, 10:39 AM
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well there is no real difference, the only reason i said that is that if you have the true F#Sus2 it would be F#G#C# what he has is F#C#G#(+1 oct) and you can do both inversions of F#G#C# and never really get the true Sus2 (notationally)...but if you think about it, you can invert a 9th and it becomes a 2nd so then you would get the F#G#C#...but if you look at if for face value the way its played it is really a 5add9 which doesnt exist...atleast i cant find one...kind of an enharmonic spelling...

As for the second part Sus2's do not need to be resolved...Sus/Sus4's do because the have an upward motion; 4th is only a half step above the 3rd giving it that upward motion...but the Sus2 is a whole step below the 3rd giving it more disconnection from the chord progression

peace
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